There is some obvious confusion regarding the definition of the term “Full Preterism” and or “Full Preterists”(FP going forward). I have posted about this issue regarding the use or actually the rejection of the label by prominent leaders of this cultic movement despite their views being clearly full preterist basic tenets.
In recent years FP have been trying to distance themselves from the term altogether and trying to say that they are just Preterists. The main reason that they are using to justify this is because of the common definition used to describe FP.
This common used definition basically says that FP believe that all of or 100% of biblical prophecy has already been fulfilled. They argue that since they believe that salvation is still going out to the Gentiles and that the consequences of the 70AD event is still future that this is proof that they are not FP and they even call other FP “hyper preterists” who do not believe in any continued consequences like the FP called “Israel Only” which teaches that biblical revelation in its entirety (The fall, sin and the promise of redemptive salvation) was for the people of ethnic Israel and that there is no benefits for anyone else after the 70AD event.
Therefore this brings me to my main point.
My plea to all reformed orthodox Preterists theologians is that we need to be more precise and accurate with our definition of Full or Hyper Preterism.
Let’s be very clear here. These are the three main doctrines that FP reject:
- The future physical return of Christ.
- A future final judgement in that last day at the end of temporal history.
- The general and physical resurrection of the dead.
To reiterate many FP are now are claiming that they aren’t FP because they still see as future the gospel spread, God’s law implemented and the resurrection of the dead which Gary DeMar and his teacher Kim Burgess define as when one dies and goes to heaven with a new spiritual body.
Therefore they will claim “I am not a FP because I don’t believe “all” or 100% of prophecy is already fulfilled in the past since this is the basic and general definition of FP.
These claims by the FP are disingenuous and totally misses the point. Why?
The actual definition of FP should accurately be that the main or central end time prophecies concerning Christ return, the end of the age and the resurrection of the dead have been fulfilled already in the past. This definition sets the table for everything else that needs to be discussed that are related to the above doctrines.
It is my strong opinion that this is the vital qualifier that needs to be understood and so it is a big mistake to just generalize the definition into all prophecies.
As shown above these people that see the three central end time prophecies as already past are without a doubt Full/Hyper Preterists.
As we already know being eschatological scholars, theologians and theological laymen nerds like myself we need to strive to be more clear and precise with our terms and definitions. Confusion only leads to more confusion and the mark of great teachers and communication is biblical and theological precision.
My prayer and hope is that my plea to be more accurate will not fall on deaf ears.
Urban Reformed Theology 